Thursday, April 28, 2011

Expected Questions of Business Economics-II

Koshy’s Institute of Management
Business Economics-II
Expected Questions

 II B.Com                                                                                                     


Section-A

2 Mark questions

  1. Distinguish between Firm & Industry.
  2. What is Perfect Competition?
  3. What is price discrimination?
  4. Write any two objectives of Pricing Policy?
  5. What do you mean by going rate policy?
  6. What is Monopolistic competition?
  7. What is Oligopoly?
  8. What is Business cycle?
  9. What is Fiscal Policy?
  10. What is the meaning of Depression?
  11. What is adverse Balance of Payments?
  12. Give the meaning of devaluation?
  13. What is Meant by FDI?
  14. Expand IBRD, IMF,SDR’s?
  15. What is Exim Policy?

Section-B

                                                    5 Mark questions

  1. What is duopoly? State two features.
  2. What is meant by selling costs?
  3. State four characteristics of Business cycle?
  4. State few considerations of price policy?
  5. What is Administrative Pricing? Give an example.
  6. What is Cost Plus Pricing? What are its advantages?
  7. State few Characteristics of Oligopoly?
  8. Diffenciate between Balance of payments& Balance of Trade?
  9. What are the advantages of foreign capital?
  10. Features of MNC’s?
  11. What are the objectives of Exim policy?

Section-C

15 Marks questions                                                                

  1. Briefly state the characteristics of Perfect competition?
  2. What is Monopoly? Explain price output determination in short run & Long run..
  3. What is Business cycle? Explain the Phases of Business cycle?
  4. What are the objectives of pricing policy?
  5. Explain the measures for correction of disequilibrium in Balance of Payments?
  6. Explain the role of MNC’s in Economic development in India?




Section-D

15 Marks questions

  1. What is Discriminating Monopoly? Explain the term with the diagram.
  2. What is Pricing Policy? What are its Considerations, types and Objectives?
  3. Explain the FDI & FII role in the Economic development of India?
  4. Explain the structure of Exim policy 2002-2007..

Key of Internal Test.... For IV BBM &IV B.Com

Koshy’s Institute of Management
Indian Constitution
Internal Examinations 2011
Key-------------------

 IV BBM & IV B.Com                                                                                                     

Section-A
Answer the followings
1.       When did the elections held for constituent assembly? Ans :1952
2.       How many committees worked in drafting the Indian constitution?Ans : 22
3.       Who was the chairman of drafting committee? Ans: Dr.Rajendra Prasad
4.       When India did have Independence? Ans : August 15, 1947
5.       When the constitution did came in to force? Ans: January 26, 1950
6.       How many Articles and schedules originally consisted in the Indian constitution? Ans: 395 Articles & 9 schedules
7.       How many Articles and schedules   consisting in the Indian constitution at present? Ans : 12 Schedules and 450 Articles
8.       How many fundamental rights guaranteed by the Indian constitution to its citizens? Ans : 6
9.       Which Fundamental right abolished after the 42nd constitutional amendment?Ans: Ans : Right to Property
10.    Fundamental rights are consists which part of the constitution? Ans : Part III
11.    Directive principles of state policy consist in which part of the Indian constitution? Ans: Part IV
12.     How much was the total Expenditure incurred in making of the constitution? Ans : 64 Crores
13.    Who is the present chairman of Rajya sabha? Ans :Hamid Ansari
14.    Who is the present speaker of Lok sabha? Dr. M . Meera Kumar
15.    What is the Age limit to become a Member of Lok sabha? Ans : 25 yrs
Section-B
1.       The concept of fundamental rights taken from______________________ Constitution. Ans : USA
2.       The Emergency provisions are taken from _________________________ constitution. Ans : Germany
3.       Who has the power to proclaim the Emergency in India_______________________. Ans : The President
4.       Who was the chairman of constituent Assembly________________________Ans :Dr. Rajendara Prasad
5.       What is the Present strength of member s in lok sabha____________. Ans :543
6.       How many resolution Passed in making of the Constitution________Ans:7635
7.       How much was the time period taken by the Drafting committee to complete the constitution_________________________Ans : 2 yrs 11 months & 17 days
8.       What is Republic___________________________________________________Ans : The ruler of the country is selected through elections..
9.       Who was the legal advisor of Constituent Assembly___________________Ans : B.N.Rao
10.    The fundamental right which was abolished after 42nd Amendment of the Indian constitution_________________________Ans: Right to Property
11.    Fundamental rights are considered as _____________________ of the Indian constitution. Ans: Heart
12.    Directive principles are _________________ of Indian constitution.Ans: Novel feature
13.    Who was the last British Governor General ______________________addressed the Constituent Assembly? Ans: Lord Mountabattien
14.    Who was the First President of Independent India______________________________________Ans: Dr. Rajendara Prasad
15.    Who was the First Prime minister of independent India____________________________Ans: Pandit Jawahar lal Nehru

Section-C

1. Who was the Chairman of the Draft Committee of the Constituent Assembly—
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) K. M. Munshi
(C) Jagjivan Ram
(D) None of the above
2. When was the draft Constitution of India prepared by the Drafting Committee submitted to the President of the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 28th Feb. 1948
(B) 26th Feb. 1948
(C) 21st Feb. 1948
(D) 25th Feb. 1948
3. When was the Constitution of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 25th Nov. 1949
(B) 29th Nov. 1949
(C) 26th Nov. 1949
(D) 27th Nov. 1949
4. When were the election to the Constituent Assembly held—
(A) July 1946
(B) Aug. 1946
(C) Sep. 1946
(D) Oct. 1946

5. In the Parliament of India Upper House in known as—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Council of States
(D) None of the above

6. Who was the Prime Minister of India in the first Lok Sabha—
(A) Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant
(B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Abdul Kalam Azad
(D) C. D. Deshmukh
7. Who nominates 12 members in the Council of State—
(A) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(B) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) President of India
(D) Prime Minister of India
(D) Prime Minister of India
8. Members of Rajya Sabha are elected by which members—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Legislative Assembly
(C) Council of State
(D) Legislative Council
9. For a Election to Lok Sabha, each State shall be divided into—
(A) Constituencies
(B) Territorial Constituencies
(C) Union Constituencies
(D) State Constituencies

10. How many members are fixed for Lok Sabha—
(A) 501
(B) 551
(C) 530
(D) 506

11. In which Article of the Constitution of India, duration of House of Parliament has been mentioned—
(A) 83
(B) 84
(C) 85
(D) 88

12. Which House shall not be a subject for dissolution—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) House of People
(C) Council of State
(D) State Legislature

13. After how many years, one-third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire—
(A) 6 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 2 years

14. Under which Constitutional subject in operation, life of Lok Sabha can be extended by one year—
(A) Proclamation of Emergency
(B) Proclamation of President Rule in the State
(C) Proclamation of Amendment to the Constitution
(D) None of the above
15. What is the period of Lok Sabha—
(A) Four years
(B) Six years
(C) Five years
(D) Three years
16. Under whose advice, the President shall have the power of summoning, prorogation and dissolution—
(A) Home Minister
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Council of Ministers
(D) Parliamentary Affairs Ministers
17. During the absence of the Chairman, who runs the Rajya Sabha ?
(A) Deputy Chairman
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Home Minister
(D) Parliamentary Affairs Minister
18. Which two houses, can have a joint sitting—
(A) Legislative Assembly and Parliament
(B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(C) Council of State and Legislative Council
(D) None of the above
19. Which Articles in the Indian Constitution represent emergency provisions—
(A) Article 348-354
(B) Article 352-360
(C) Article 359-361
(D) Article 368-380
20. Who has the power to declare that citizen has no right to move any court for the enforcement of the rights conferred by Part 3 of Fundamental Rights during the course of emergency—
(A) Executive
(B) President
(C) Governor
(D) Prime Minister

Monday, April 25, 2011

Indian constitution--- III BCA

Expected Questions: Indian Constitution
1.The consititutent assembly was set up under the:
Ans: Cabinet Mission plan, 1946
2.The constitutional assembly was consitituted on
Ans : 6th December, 1946
3.Demand for a constitution, framed by a consitutent assembly was made by:
Ans : M.K.Gandhi
4. which one of the following reflects the philosophy of the framers of the constitution:
Ans : Preamble
5.The preamble was amended by :
Ans: 42nd Amendament
6. How many articles were there originally in the Indian constitution:
Ans : 395 Articles
7.The Indian constitution is :
Ans: Wholly written
8.India is a :
Ans : Secular state
9.The constitution of india provides for fundamental rights in :
Ans : Part III
10. Constitution of india gurantees How many fundamental rights:
Ans : 6
11.Right to constitutional remedies is obtained in:
Ans : Article 32
12.Who was the permanent chairman of constituent assembly?
Ans: Dr. Rajendra Prasad
13. The concept of Secular state implies:
Ans: Neutrality of religion
14. The date of commencement of Indian constitution is:
Ans : 26th January
15.Who was the Lega advisor to constitutent assembly?
Ans: B.N Rao
16. The procedure of amendament to the constitution is taken from the constitution of :
Ans: USA
17. India has been described under article 1 of the constitution as :
Ans : Union of states
18.As Indian constitution came in to force on 26.01.1950, this day is celebrated as
Ans : Republic day
19. The final Interpreter of Indian constitution is:
Ans: supreme Court.
20. Which state has a separate constitution?
Ans : jammu and kashmir
21. Which article empowers the parliament can amend the indian constitution?
Ans: article 368
22. The right to equality has been provided in articles ..
Ans : 14 to 18
23. Article 32, ensures the right to :
Ans : Constitutional remedies
24. The right to exploitation prohibits:
Ans : Traffic in Human beings
25. Fundamental rights are :
Ans : Justifiable
26. The freedom of speech and expression does not include:
Ans: calling for “Bundh”
27.This article is applicable to both citizens and not citizens:
Ans : Article 14
28.Who admits a new state to the union of India:
Ans : Parliament
29. The constitution confers special powers for the enforcement of Fundamental rights on the :
Ans: supreme Court
30. Equal opportunity in public employment is guaranteed under the article :
Ans : 16
31. A person can move to supreme court directly for protection of Fundamental rights under the article :
Ans : 32
32. Article 21A on right to education was inserted by- constitutional amendment:
Ans : 86th
33. Right to education guaranteed under the article 21-A applied to the age group of :
Ans : 6 to 14yrs
34.The directive principles of state policy included in the constitution of india have been inspired by the constitution of :
Ans: Ireland
35. Fundamental duties were incorporated in the constitution in the year:
Ans: 1976
36. Fundamental duty demand:
Ans: To abide by the constitution
37. The strength of loksabha is:
Ans : 550
38. The strength of Rajyasabha is:
Ans : 250
39.Who convinces the joint sessions of the loksabha and rajyasabha:
Ans : The president
40. Which is described as “Knowledge House” ?
Ans: Rajyasabha
41.Which budget is placed first in the parliament house?
Ans: Railways
42.who is considered as the custodian of parliament?
Ans: The speaker
43.The comptroller and auditor general acts as friend, philosopher and guide of :
Ans: Public accounts committee
44. Memebership of legislative assembly are:
Ans: varies between 60 and 500
45. Bicameral means
Ans: Two houses in the state legislature
46. How many states in india have legislative councils?
Ans: 5
47. The executive power of the union government is vested in:
Ans: The president
48. To be eligible for election as president, a candidate must be:
Ans: 35 yrs age
49.The president holds office for a term of
Ans : 5 yrs
50. Impeachement proceedings against the president can be initiated in:
Ans: Either houses of the parliament
51.How many members are nominated to the rajyasabha by the president?
Ans: 12 Members
52.The vice-president is ex-officio chairman of :
Ans: Rajyasabha
53.The president of india is similar to:
Ans: Queen of England
54.Usually the prime minster of india is:
Ans: The leader of majority party in the loksabha
55.Which house of parliament is not subject to dissolution:
Ans: Rajyasabha
56.The president of india is bounded by the advice of:
Ans: The prime minister of india
57.Which is the following appointments is not made by the president:
Ans: Speaker of loksabha
58. Under which article can the president be impeached:
Ans: Article 61
59.Who occupied the president’s office twice(Two terms)..
Ans: Dr.Rajendra Prasad
60.Vice president of india draws salary as
Ans: chairman of Rajyasabha
61. Which article empowers the president to grant pardon?
Ans: Article 72
62. Which article empowers president to appoint the Prime Minister?
Ans: 74
63. Impeachment proceedings can be initiated against the president in either of house of parliament only if a resolution signed by _______ members of the house is moved….
Ans: 25% of the total
64.A political party is accord status of an opposition party in Loksabha if it captures at least:
Ans: 10% of the seats
65. The comptroller and auditor general is appointed by :
Ans: the president
66. The Attorney general of india is:
Ans: Highest legal officer of union government
67. Who is the head of the state?
Ans: The governor
68. Governor is responsible to:
Ans: The president
69. The retirement of the judges of the high court is:
Ans: 62 yrs
70. The maximum strength of the state legislative assembly is:
Ans: 500 members
71. The state cabinet is controlled by :
Ans: the Chief Minister
72. The minimum age to contest in the election of Legislative assembly:
Ans: 25 yrs
73. The chief minister is appointed by :
Ans: The governor
74. The governor of a state acts as:
Ans: The agent to the President
75.The Emoluments of the ministers in the state government are determined by:
Ans: Legislative assembly
76. There is no provision for the impeachment of :
Ans: The governor
77. The contingency fund of the state is operated by :
Ans: Governor
78. Which body can be abolished but not dissolved:
Ans: State legislative council
79. Which article of the constitution empowers the high court to issue writs of various kinds?
Ans: Article 226
80. The chief minister of state cannot take part in the election of president if he is:
Ans: A member of a legislative council of the state
81. Which article under the constitution authorizes the president to proclaim an emergency?
Ans: Article 352
82. When the emergency is declared the following fundamental rights is suspended,,
Ans: 19
83. How many types of emergencies are envisaged by the constitution?
Ans: 3
84. Proclamation of emergency issued approved by the parliament will be in force for the period of :
Ans: Six months
85. Brekdown of constitutional machinery in the state is popularly known as:
Ans: President’s rule
86. Which type of emergency declared the maximum number of times?”
Ans: Constitutional emergency
87. To declare National emergency, a decision must be taken by the
Ans: Cabinet
88. Financial emergency can be proclaimed under the article
Ans: 360
89. Presidnet made a proclamation of emergency on grounds of internal disturbances for the first time in:
Ans: 1975
90. Coalition government refers to:
Ans: a multi-party government
91. The chief justice of India is appointed by
Ans: The president
92. Judges of Supreme Court retires at the age of:
Ans: 65 yrs
93. Who can seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court:
Ans: President
94. Expand PIL
Ans: Public interest litigation
95. Which article provides that law lay down by Supreme Court is binding on all courts of india:
Ans: 141
96. Who interprets the Indian constitution?
Ans: The Supreme Court
97. Original jurisdiction of the supreme court of India relates to:
Ans: Disputes between states and union
98. In which case did Supreme Court restore the primacy of Fundamental rights over directive princiaples of state policy:
Ans: Minerva Mills case
99. Who has power to establish common high court for two or more states and union territories:
Ans: Parliament
100. Judicial review is exercised by the Supreme Court when a law violates
Ans: the constitution
101. The concept of secular state implies:
Ans: Neutrality of religion
102. The Indian constitution is recognized as
Ans: Federal in form and unitary in spirit
103. What is the ultimate source of political power (authority) in India?
Ans: People
104. By what procedure a new state is formed?
Ans: Constitutional amendment
105. Article 356 of the constitution of India Provides for
Ans: Proclamation of president rule in the state
106. How many subjects are there in the central, state and concurrent list?
Ans: 97,66 and 47
107. The concept of concurrent list is borrowed from the constitution of :
Ans: Australia
108. Reservation of appointment can be made under the article:
Ans: 16(4)
109. Which commission recommended 27% reservations?
Ans: mandal commission
110. Reservation of seats for SC’s and ST’s in the Loksabha was initially for:
Ans: 20 yrs
111. The mandal commission was appointed in
Ans: 1978
112. According to marriage act of 1954, the age is fixed at_______________ years for men and _______ for women….
Ans: 21 and 18.
113. Concept of ‘Creamy layer”, propounded by Supreme Court with regard to reservations, refers
Ans: Economically better-off people

Tuesday, April 12, 2011

Environmental Model Expected Question Paper....For II BBM,II B.com & IV BCA

Environmental Studies
II BBM,II B.Com & IV BCA


Answer All the Questions


1. An Environment Act was started in
a) 1976 b) 1986 c) 1996 d) 1998
2. The word Environment is derived from which language?
a) German b) Europe c) French d) Japanese
3. Which components constitute the plants animals, and the micro organisms?
a) Internal components b) Abiotic components c) Biotic components
4. Environmentalism refers to the movement to protect the quality and continuity of life by
Conservation of
a) Natural Resources b) Artificial resources c) Energy resources d) None
5. Consumption sector is also known as
a) Production sector b) Distribution sector c) House hold sector d) None
6. Environment studies does not have relation with
a) Chemistry b) Physics c) Biology d) Economics
7. The term environment derived from the French word which means to encircle or surround
a) Environ b)Oikos c)geo d) Aqua
8. The world summit on sustainable development at Johanseburg in the year
a) 2000 b) 1999 c) 2001 d)2002
9. The example of renewable resources are
a) Coal b) oil c) Iron d) Forest
10. Physical Enviroment is
a) abiotic component b) Biotic component c)Both Biotic and abiotic d) None of the above
11.The impact of which activities reach in to every cornor of the natural world exerting pressure on the available resources?
a) Human activity b) Agricultural c) Constructive
12. Earth Atmosphere contains ______________ % of nitrogen
a) 98% b) v12% c) 21% d) n 78%
13. Nirogen fixing bacteria exists in _______ of Plants
a) Leaf b) Roots c) Stem d) Flower
14. Sulphur occurs in soil and rocks in the form of
a) oxides of Zn & Fe b) Sulphates of Zn & Fe c)Nitrates of Zn & Fe d)Suphides of Zn & Fe
15. Which pollution affects plants, animals and human health etc.
a) Air Pollution b) Water pollution c) Environmental
16. The cause of green house effect is
a) afforestration b) Deforestration c)conservation d) flood
17. What is the permissible range of pH for drinking water as per the Indian standards?
a) 6 to 9 b) 6.5 to 7.5 c) 6 to 8.5 d) 6.5 to 8.5
18. Solar radiation consists of
a) UV b) Visible light c) Infrared d) All of these
19. Dense and diverse forests grows in
a) Tundra region b) Arid region c) Equatorial region d) None of the above
20. The examples of ground water is
a) Springs b) Lakes c) Ponds d) River
21.A plant community predominantly of trees and other vegetation usually with a close canopy, is called
a) Vegetational b) natural resources c) Environment d) Forest
22. The example of Exhaustible resources is
a) Hydro power b) Biomass c) solar power d) coal and natural gas
23. Antartica has _________ glaciers of the world
a) 30% b) 96% c) 70% d) 60%
24. Excess floride in drinking water is likely to cause
a) Blue babies b) flurosis c) Arsenic d) intestinal irritation
25. Forest rich area in Karnataka is found in
a) Western ghats b) Bandipur c) Nagarhole d) Mangalore
26. The examples of renewable resources are
a) Fossile fuel b) Metals c) Minerals d) Plants
27.During the photosynthesis, trees produce
a) Oxygen b) Co2 c) Nitrogen d) Carbon Monoxide
28. What is the maximum allowable concentration of fluorides in drinking water?
a) 1.0 ml gram per liter b) 1.25 ml gram per liter
c) 1.50 ml gram per liter d) 1.75 ml gram per liter
29. The depletion of trees causing accumulation of_____
a) NO2 b) SO2 c) CO2 d) O2
30. __________are referred to as Earth’s Lungs
a) Forests b) Carbon cycles c) Water resources d) Mines
31. Cholera & typhoid are caused by
a) Worms b) Virus c) Bacteria d) Fungus
32. Hepatitis is caused by
a)Protozoo b) Virus c) Bacteria d) Fungus
33. Mineral resources are
a) Renewable b) Available in Plenty c)Non renewable d) Equally distributed
34. In india forest conservation act was introduced in
a) 1965 b) 1970 c)1975 d) 1980
35. Global forest cover is a key indicator of the health of the
a)Planet b) Forest c)Human being d) None of these
36. The national target to achieve 33% of forest cover is expected by
a) 2012 b) 2015 c) 2014 d) 2016
37. The process of taking out material from earth crust is
a) Quarrying b) Mining c) Acquifer b) Purifying
38. Food refers to anything eaten by man to satisfy his appetite and to supply energy to
a) Bones b) Human body c) brain d) Mussels
39. The energy that is used for turning the wheels of machines and engines is
a) Power resources b) Energy resources c) natural resources d) Forest resources
40. Which erosion prevents by forests
a) Water erosion b) soil erosion c) sound erosion d) All together
41. The process of clearing forest cover by cutting down burning and damaging plantation is called
a) Carbon storage b) Oxygen storage c) Ethanal storage d) None of these
42. Africa losing forest at the rate of
a) 4% b) 6% c) 3% d) 8%
43. The living resources are called
a) abiotic resources b) Biotic resources c) Exhaustible resources d) In exhaustible resources
44. Example of Exhaustible resources is
a) Coal b) solar energy c) atomic energy d) wind Power
45. While manufacturing the Bauxite _______ are produced
a) Fluorine b) Chlorine c) Oxygen d) Oxide
46._______% of water is preset as fresh water to satisfy human needs
a) 1.6% b) 3.6% c) 2% d) 2.6%
47. Which is laid off from the rivers to carry water to agricultural fields?
a) Pyres b) Pyses c) Pyrers d) pisers
48. Uranium mine is located in
a) Jaduguda b) Punjab c) Jharkand d) assam
49. Salinity is the presence of __________ in soils or water
a) Soluble states b) insoluble salts c) acid d) water
50. Solar cells are also referred to as
a) Photos cell b) Photoc cell c) Phototaic cells d) Photovaltaic cells
51. The first hydro power generating unit was commissioned in Darjeeling in
a) 1888 b) 1890 c) 1895 d) 1897
52. _______ wastes are decomposed to generate biogas
a) Fuel b) Disposal c) Organic d) Inorganic
53. Desertification occurs mainly in semi arid ares where average rainfall is less than
a) 200 mm b) 400 mm c) 500 mm d) 600 mm
54. The wild life protection act of 1972, was enunciated and special programmes to protect _____ species
a) Endangered b) endangered wild life c) exhausted d) animal life
55. Food web consist of
a) a portion of food web b) an organisms position in a food chain c) Interlocking food chain d) A set of similar consumers
56. Uranium & thorium are non ferrous minerals used for producing _________ energy
a) Atomic b) power c) electrical d) Nuclear
57. The term ecosystem was coined by Arthur Tansley in
a) 1920 b) 1925 c) 1930 d) 1935
58. The process of food synthesis by producers is called
a) Self-narration b) Autotrophic c) Autobiotic
59. The living components of the eco system, which depends on producers for their nutrition are called
a) Customers b) consumptionist c) consumers
60. MAB is
a) Man and Biosphere b) Man and Biosphere programme c) Man and Biosphere policy
d) Man and Biomass
61. Hot spots refers to
a) Land slide sites b) Centres of volcanic activity c) Earth quake zones d) centres of weak spots under crustal plates
62. Which pyramid is always upright
a) Energy b) Biomass c) Numbers d) Food chain
63. Predator food chain is also called as
a) Grace food chain b) granse food chain c) Grazing food chain
64. The Ecosystem found in watery environment is
a) Acquatic b) desert c) Grass land d) estuaries
65.The animal that is not found in savanna is
a) Camel b) antelopes c) leopards d) Mice
66. Decomposers includes
a) Micro organisms b) hetetrophic organisms c) Fusarium organisms
67. Plant eating animals are called
a) Herbivores b) carnivores c) omnivores d) consumers
68. Temperate grassland are called as
a) Savanna b) Steppes c) ecosystem d) None
69. Marine ecosystem does not include
a) Ocean b) coralreefs c) estuaries d) lakes
70. The major atmospheric gas layer in stratosphere is
a) Hydrogen b) Co2 c) Ozone d) Helium
71. India is self sufficient in
a) Gold b) coal c) Lead d) Zink
72. The term biological diversity coined by
a) Thames lare b) Thomas Leyers
c) Thumas Laure d) Thomas Lovejoy
73. Biodiversity includes
a) all living things b) only non-living things c) Only organisms d) Micro organisms
74. India has _________ species of amphibians which are endemic species
a) 89 b) 98 c) 79 d) 67
75. The expansion of EBA’s is
a) Endemic Boarders area’s b) Endemic Board area
c) Endemic Bird ares’s d) Endemic bears area
76. The total forest cover of the country is % of the geographic area of the country
a) 19.20 b) 18.20 c) 17.27 d) 19.27
77. Conservation strategies are urgently needed involving a mix of which strategies?
a) in situ and ex situ b) instate and ex sata
c) in sito and exsito d) in site and siti
78. CES stands for
a) Control for Ecological services b) center for economic science
c) Center for ecological sciences d) None
79. How many millions of people were die each year from causes of air pollution?
a) 2.2 b) 2.6 c) 4.2 d) 4.6
80. Expansion of VOC is
a) Valtole organ carbonic b) volatoil organic carbon
c) Volatile organic carbon d) velatele Organ carbon
81. Remote sensing is useful in
a) Biodiversity b) Global warming c) Cyclones d) ecosystem
82. Ship transporting oil during which oil leakage is common and accidents results in
a) oil slobs b) oil slicks c) Oil lubricants
83. Noise pollution limits at residential area
a) 45 dB b) 80 dB c) 55 dB d) 90 dB
84. Pesticides causes
a) Eye irritation b) skin irritation c) Respiratory ailments d) all of the above
85. The first Indian city to adopt CNG (compressed natural gas) for public transport is
a) Delhi b) Ahmedabad c) Kolkata d) Chennai
86. The community water supply and sanitation project was initiated in
a) 1984 b) 1986 c) 1990 d) 1992
87. Environmental ethics became a subject of sustained academic philosophic reflection in
a) 1960 b) 1970 c) 1980 d) 1990
88. The emissions from chemicals has depleted the ozone layer by
a) 10% b) 12% c) 14% d) 16%
89. The term acid rain was first used by Robert angus in
a) 1860 b) 1865 c) 1870 d) 1872
90. Globally the warmest year was in
a) 1990 b) 1994 c) 1998 d) 1999
91. Rain water with pH _______ is called acid rain
a) Lower than 5.7 b) Higher than 5.7
c) Equal to 7 d) more than 7.5
92. Ozone is _________ around equator
a) Dense b) Thinnest c) Thin d) Equal
93. Environment protection Act was started in
a) 1988 b) 1986 c) 1984 d) 1982
94. The expansion of PGR is
a) Population growth rate b) Pollution growth rate
c) Prevention growth rate d) Product growth rate
95. In the year 2050, Indian population will reach around
a) 1.53 billion b) 1.00 billion c) 1.32 billion d) 1.35 billion
96. Which virus was identified in 1983?
a) AIDS virus b) HIV virus c) HIT virus d) RNA virus
97. The CFC which enters stratosphere lasts for about
a) 65-385 yrs b) 6-38 yrs c) 600-3000 yrs d) 60.38 months
98. National Family welfare programme was launched in India in the year
a) 1951 b) 1952 c) 1953 d) 1954
99. Aids is a
a) Virus b) Vaccine c) disease d) syringe
100. When was human environment adopted at Stockholm?
a) On 16 July 1972 b) On 16 Nov 1972
c) On 16 Jan 1972 d) On 16 June 1972

Friday, April 1, 2011

Meaning of Pollution

The Meaning of Pollution




Introduction to the meaning of pollution

Any unwanted or undesirable change in the state of natural environment through contaminated and harmful substances is called "Pollution". This is normally as a consequence of human activities which are intentional or accidental in nature. It is also understood to be as any substance or activity which damages the ecosystem and tend to disbalance the same. As a result it creates health hazards to human beings and animals. For example, harmful gases released by industries in air results into polluting air which has set imbalance in the composition of air and made it unworthy to breathe - thereby causing innumerable health problems to human and animal life. Excessive use of pesticides on crops has caused imbalance in ecosystems of lands besides causing drinking water pollution.

Pollution is therefore a phenomena where natural ingredients of environment are affected or damaged by the presence of dangerous unnatural ingredients which causes imbalance to the natural system and create number of health hazards to animals and human beings. These unnatural ingredients may be gases (causing air pollution), different kinds solids or liquids (causing water, food and land pollution) or different form of sound (causing sound pollution).

It is mainly caused by human activities like discharge of domestic, industrial and agricultural waste; excessive use of pesticides by farmers; leaks of radioactive materials; factories emitting gases into the atmosphere etc.
Types of Pollution - the Meaning of Pollution

Air Pollution: It is the release of harmful gases, chemicals and particulates into the atmosphere. Common examples include carbon monoxide, sulfur dioxide, chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), and nitrogen oxides produced by industry and motor vehicles. Burning of fuels like coal petrol or diesel in vehicles and factories releases harmful gases which makes the air dirty and unfit for breathing.

Water Pollution: It happens due to contamination of ground water through various unwanted activities. Drains and sewerage from towns and cities carrying dirty and filthy water mixed with soap, detergent and other harmful chemicals are all discharged into rivers, lakes or seas causing heavy water pollution. Some amount of fertilizers and agricultural fields also pollute the water.


Water pollution can be defined in many ways. Usually, it means one or more substances have built up in water to such an extent that they cause problems for animals or people. Oceans, lakes, rivers, and other inland waters can naturally clean up a certain amount of pollution by dispersing it harmlessly. If you poured a cup of black ink into a river, the ink would quickly disappear into the river's much larger volume of clean water. The ink would still be there in the river, but in such a low concentration that you would not be able to see it. At such low levels, the chemicals in the ink probably would not present any real problem. However, if you poured gallons of ink into a river every few seconds through a pipe, the river would quickly turn black. The chemicals in the ink could very quickly have an effect on the quality of the water. This, in turn, could affect the health of all the plants, animals, and humans whose lives depend on the river. Causes of Water Pollution

Unlike air pollution, water pollution has to be studied in the spatial perspective to understand the causes. Hence, causes of water pollution can be classified as

* Main source of pollution - where in pure water is mixed with pollutant for first time

* Secondary source of pollution - where polluted water is further polluted when the water is traversing on the surface or below the surface of soil.

The causes in main source and secondary source of pollution may be same or different, the pollutant of main source and secondary source may be same or different. When the same pollutant pollutes the water two or more times during main and secondary source, the concentration of pollutant increases. But, as the concentration has inverse relationship with distance traversed the pollutant concentration is also subjected to constant decrease.

When two or more pollutants cause pollution, then, their concentrations are independent of each other.
how to control water pollution?Water pollution is the change or alteration caused to the natural water resources due to the release of pollutants in it. Major water bodies like sea, rivers, lakes, ponds, and ocean and also the underground is affected due to water pollution. The major causes for the water pollution is release of industrial wastes and sewage into the water bodies, excess fertilizers and other chemicals washed away from the land and mixing with water, releases of oil and other non soluble substances in water, fecal release in water, etc. Conclusion about pollution of water is it affects the life of aquatic plants and animals, eutrophication, land plants as water is required for their survival, biomagnifications, and causes several diseases in animals and human beingsIntroduction to strategies to control environmental pollution:

Strategies to control environmental pollutions are many. Each environmental pollution will be dealt separately. For example water pollution which is caused by both the point sources and non point sources are to be dealt with separately. Air pollution which is caused by the release of unwanted gases such as oxides of sulfur and nitrogen are to be dealt with different strategies. So for environmental pollution different strategies are to be used and the strategies differ with country to country. For example the strategy used in the developing country is not useful for the developed country.
Strategy to Control Air Pollution:

The use of non conventional energy sources would greatly help in reducing the air pollution. The strategy for the air pollution is make the air clear of many unwanted gases in the atmosphere. The atmosphere is most important in that it gives oxygen to the breathing if the unwanted gases goes into the body it may cause various diseases. Lung cancer and some other type of cancer is the most important types of diseases which is caused by the air pollution.

The use of green technology to produce energy and product which does not use the coal and other conventional type of energy is most important.

Strategy to Control Water Pollution:

Water is the important to all the living thing in the world. The strategy to control the water pollution will be find out the point sources of pollution and cutting down the point source. Domestic sewage should not be directed to the water bodies. They should be treated and all the solid waste from the water are to disposed properly. The presence of bacteria is to be checked from time to time in the water bodies and the total dissolved solids are to be checked and it should be kept in minimum.

strategy to control Soil pollution

The strategy includes the proper disposal of waste, non disposable waste and disposable waste should be properly treated. Plastics should be recycled and the use of plastic should be made into minimum.
land pollution: the solution on the soil erosion?
Soil or Land Pollution and Sound Pollution

Soil pollution is the kind of pollution of land or soil due to contamination by salts, chemicals, radioactive materials. Some of the most common pollutants are the metals such as mercury and chemicals from fertilizers and pesticides as discussed in water pollution. Industrial disposal and sewage disposal including plastic also results in soil pollution. The cutting down of trees , causes soil erosion lead to infertility of the soil. Soil pollution can lead to water pollution. The crops grown on such land can carry the pollutant into the consumers’ body. Soil pollution may make the land barren . It can collect toxic elements and be harmful to people living in the area.

Besides these pollution there is also another type pollution such as sound pollution which is caused by loud music , sonic boom from jets , aircrafts .It can effect a person’s ability to hear and may cause mental sickness such as sleeplessness , depression etc. This is more of a social pollution than an environmental pollution.
Control of Land Soil Pollution

Soil pollution can be minimised by collecting the wastes properly. Several materials discarded from homes and industries such s metals, paper, certain types of plastics, glass can be reused. They can be separated, melted and reused.

Paper products are converted to pulp and can be used again to make paper. This not only reduces pollution but also saves trees (as paper is made from bark and wood of trees).

Biological wastes such as discarded food, vegetables and fruits, can be used for the production of manure. Wastes containing pathogenic organisms and those which cannot be easily reduced are burnt in a careful manner in places far away from residential areas.

Developing hygienic habits minimises the pollution due to excretory material. As responsible citizens, it is our duty to prevent the pollution of mother earth.

Soil or Land Pollution: Mixing of harmful substances with soil is called land pollution. It is caused by domestic, industrial and agricultural wastes. Agricultural waste includes not only parts of plants but also fertilizers and chemicals used to destroy weeds and pests. Animal waste too pollutes land.Pictures of Soil Pollution
Introduction to pictures of soil pollution

Soil pollution is the alteration in soil caused by removal or addition of substances and factors that decreases its productivity, quality of plants and ground water.

Negative soil pollution is reduction in soil productivity due to erosion and over-use.

Positive soil pollution is reduction in soil productivity due to addition of undesirable substances.

Pesticides and fertilizers are the two types of agrochemicals.

Landscape pollution is converting fertile land into barren one by dumping wastes over it.
Causes of Soil Pollution : Pictures of Soil Pollution

Pesticides: they include insecticides, pesticides, fungicides, algicides, rodenticides, and weedicides. Pesticides are generally broad spectrum and function as biocides.

Fertilizers: excessive use causes soil deterioration through decrease of natural microflora. Leaching of soil causes pollution of underground water. Salts when in excess amount enter the crop plants may prove harmful to them. For example, nitrate rich leaves, fruits and water produce nitrite in alimentary canal that enters blood, combines with haemoglobin forming met-haemoglobin and reducing oxygen transport.

Industrial effluents: they include scraps, effluents, sludge, fly ash and radioactive wastes. Industrial solid wastes and sludge add a lot of toxic chemical into soil. Fly ash is fall-out from testing laboratories and other sources also pollute the soil.

Municipal wastes: they include domestic or kitchen wastes, market wastes, sweepings, wastes from commercial complexes, rubbish, hospital slaughterhouse livestock/poultry wastes and trash like waste metals, plastics, pet bottles, polyethylene carry bags. Municipal wastes are partly degradable and partly non-degradable.

Mining waste: they include mine dust, rock tailing, slack and slag. Open cast mining completely spoil the surrounding soil. Toxic metals and chemicals present in the mining wastes destroy vegetation and produce many deformities in animals and human beings.

soil pollution due to fertilizers


It involves safer land use, planned urbanization, controlled development activities, safe disposal and management of solid wastes. The last one involves – collection and categorization of wastes, transport to disposal site and disposal of waste.
Conclusion of Picture of Soil Pollution

Disposal of wastes contain three main Rs: recovery, recycling and reuse. The articles that can be recovered and recycled are tins, ans and other metal wastes, glass, plastic, polyethylene, rags, paper and cardboard. Garbage and other organic wastes can be taken out of urban areas and used for formation of compost, biogas and manure.


Noise Pollution: The presence of any displeasing sound in the environment created by human, animal or machine which disrupts the normal activity or balance of human or animal life is called Noise pollution. The major source of this pollution is transport systems like motor vehicles, rail, aircraft noise, motor horn sound, sirens, office equipment, factory machinery, construction work, audio entertainment systems, loudspeakers etc.
Effects of Pollution - the Meaning of Pollution

Polluted air causes various kinds of respiratory diseases, Chest problems and other lungs related problems in human beings. Animals and birds are equally affected by the polluted air. Water pollution give rise to various water born disease and adversely affects aquatic animals and fish. Soil or land pollution results into contaminating plants and other living beings causing various health problems.

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