UGC NET 2012 Notification, Apply Online, Download Challan--- SBI Bank Chalan 2012

UGC NET 2012 Notification, Apply Online, Download Challan

April 16, 2012

The University Grants Commission announces holding of theNational Eligibility Test (NET) on 24^th JUNE 2012 (SUNDAY)for  Junior Research Fellowship (JRF) and Eligibility for Lectureship in Indian universities and colleges.

Age : Junior Research Fellowship: Not more than 28 years as on 01.06.2012. For  Lectureship: There is no upper age limit for applying for lectureship eligibility.

IMPORTANT DATES

Last date for Applying On-Line 30-04-2012 

Last date for receiving the printout of online Application Form (2 copies), Attendance Slip (one copy) and Admission Card (one copy) at the respective test centre opted by the candidate (with fee receipt & category certificate(s) ) : 07-05-2012

Examination Fees :

For General candidates, the examination fee is Rs.450/-; for Other Backward Classes (Non-creamy layer, as per the Central list of OBC available on website : www.ncbc.nic.in ), the fee is Rs. 225/- and for SC/ST/PH/VH candidates, it is Rs. 110/-.

The candidate is to fill the Bank Challan Form in triplicate (Bank Copy, UGC Copy & Candidate’s Copy) . All the three copies of the Challan Form have to be submitted in any branch of State Bank of India along with the bank charges (commission) of Rs.20/-.

The bank will retain its copy and return the other two copies of the challan to the candidate. The candidate has to attach the UGC copy of the challan with the printout of online Application Form which he/she has to submit to the Registrar of UGC-NET Centre opted by the candidate.              

The UGC-NET will be conducted in objective mode from June, 2012 onwards. The Test will consist of three papers. All the three papers will consist of only objective type questions and will be held on 24^th June, 2012 (SUNDAY) in two separate sessions as under:     

Session	Paper	Marks	Number of Question	Duration
First	I	100	60 out of which 50  question to be attempted	1¼ Hours (09.30 A.M. to 10.45 A.M.)
First	II	100	50 questions all are  compulsory	1¼ Hours (10.45 A.M. to 12.00 NOON)
Second	III	150	75 questions all are  compulsory	2½ Hours (01.30 P.M. to 04.00 P.M.)

Paper-I shall be of general nature covering  reasoning ability, comprehension, divergent thinking and general awareness.60 multiple choice questions of two marks each will be given, out of which the candidate would be required to answer any fifty (50). 

Paper-II shall consist of 50 objective type compulsory questions based on the subject selected by the candidate. Each question will carry 2 marks.     

Paper-III will consist of 75 objective type compulsory questions from the subject selected by the candidate. Each question will carry 2 marks.

Minimum Scorecard in Each Subject     

CATEGORY	Minimum Marks (%) to be obtained
	PAPER – I	PAPER – II	PAPER– III
GENERAL	40 (40%)	40 (40%)	75 (50 %)
OBC(Non-creamy layer)	35 (35%)	35 (35%)	67.5 (45 %) rounded off to 68
PH/VH/SC/ST	35 (35%)	35 (35%)	60 (40 %)

For Details and How To Apply For NET 2012 : Click Here

Download Bank Challan : Here

UGC-NET-bank_challan.pdf 421K   View   Download

Indian constitution Important questions-2012

Expected Questions: Indian Constitution
1.The consititutent assembly was set up under the:
Ans: Cabinet Mission plan, 1946
2.The constitutional assembly was consitituted on
Ans : 6th December, 1946
3.Demand for a constitution, framed by a consitutent assembly was made by:
Ans : M.K.Gandhi
4. which one of the following reflects the philosophy of the framers of the constitution:
Ans : Preamble
5.The preamble was amended by :
Ans: 42nd Amendament
6. How many articles were there originally in the Indian constitution:
Ans : 395 Articles
7.The Indian constitution is :
Ans: Wholly written
8.India is a :
Ans : Secular state
9.The constitution of india provides for fundamental rights in :
Ans : Part III
10. Constitution of india gurantees How many fundamental rights:
Ans : 6
11.Right to constitutional remedies is obtained in:
Ans : Article 32
12.Who was the permanent chairman of constituent assembly?
Ans: Dr. Rajendra Prasad
13. The concept of Secular state implies:
Ans: Neutrality of religion
14. The date of commencement of Indian constitution is:
Ans : 26th January
15.Who was the Lega advisor to constitutent assembly?
Ans: B.N Rao
16. The procedure of amendament to the constitution is taken from the constitution of :
Ans: USA
17. India has been described under article 1 of the constitution as :
Ans : Union of states
18.As Indian constitution came in to force on 26.01.1950, this day is celebrated as
Ans : Republic day
19. The final Interpreter of Indian constitution is:
Ans: supreme Court.
20. Which state has a separate constitution?
Ans : jammu and kashmir
21. Which article empowers the parliament can amend the indian constitution?
Ans: article 368
22. The right to equality has been provided in articles ..
Ans : 14 to 18
23. Article 32, ensures the right to :
Ans : Constitutional remedies
24. The right to exploitation prohibits:
Ans : Traffic in Human beings
25. Fundamental rights are :
Ans : Justifiable
26. The freedom of speech and expression does not include:
Ans: calling for “Bundh”
27.This article is applicable to both citizens and not citizens:
Ans : Article 14
28.Who admits a new state to the union of India:
Ans : Parliament
29. The constitution confers special powers for the enforcement of Fundamental rights on the :
Ans: supreme Court
30. Equal opportunity in public employment is guaranteed under the article :
Ans : 16
31. A person can move to supreme court directly for protection of Fundamental rights under the article :
Ans : 32
32. Article 21A on right to education was inserted by- constitutional amendment:
Ans : 86th
33. Right to education guaranteed under the article 21-A applied to the age group of :
Ans : 6 to 14yrs
34.The directive principles of state policy included in the constitution of india have been inspired by the constitution of :
Ans: Ireland
35. Fundamental duties were incorporated in the constitution in the year:
Ans: 1976
36. Fundamental duty demand:
Ans: To abide by the constitution
37. The strength of loksabha is:
Ans : 550
38. The strength of Rajyasabha is:
Ans : 250
39.Who convinces the joint sessions of the loksabha and rajyasabha:
Ans : The president
40. Which is described as “Knowledge House” ?
Ans: Rajyasabha
41.Which budget is placed first in the parliament house?
Ans: Railways
42.who is considered as the custodian of parliament?
Ans: The speaker
43.The comptroller and auditor general acts as friend, philosopher and guide of :
Ans: Public accounts committee
44. Memebership of legislative assembly are:
Ans: varies between 60 and 500
45. Bicameral means
Ans: Two houses in the state legislature
46. How many states in india have legislative councils?
Ans: 5
47. The executive power of the union government is vested in:
Ans: The president
48. To be eligible for election as president, a candidate must be:
Ans: 35 yrs age
49.The president holds office for a term of
Ans : 5 yrs
50. Impeachement proceedings against the president can be initiated in:
Ans: Either houses of the parliament
51.How many members are nominated to the rajyasabha by the president?
Ans: 12 Members
52.The vice-president is ex-officio chairman of :
Ans: Rajyasabha
53.The president of india is similar to:
Ans: Queen of England
54.Usually the prime minster of india is:
Ans: The leader of majority party in the loksabha
55.Which house of parliament is not subject to dissolution:
Ans: Rajyasabha
56.The president of india is bounded by the advice of:
Ans: The prime minister of india
57.Which is the following appointments is not made by the president:
Ans: Speaker of loksabha
58. Under which article can the president be impeached:
Ans: Article 61
59.Who occupied the president’s office twice(Two terms)..
Ans: Dr.Rajendra Prasad
60.Vice president of india draws salary as
Ans: chairman of Rajyasabha
61. Which article empowers the president to grant pardon?
Ans: Article 72
62. Which article empowers president to appoint the Prime Minister?
Ans: 74
63. Impeachment proceedings can be initiated against the president in either of house of parliament only if a resolution signed by _______ members of the house is moved….
Ans: 25% of the total
64.A political party is accord status of an opposition party in Loksabha if it captures at least:
Ans: 10% of the seats
65. The comptroller and auditor general is appointed by :
Ans: the president
66. The Attorney general of india is:
Ans: Highest legal officer of union government
67. Who is the head of the state?
Ans: The governor
68. Governor is responsible to:
Ans: The president
69. The retirement of the judges of the high court is:
Ans: 62 yrs
70. The maximum strength of the state legislative assembly is:
Ans: 500 members
71. The state cabinet is controlled by :
Ans: the Chief Minister
72. The minimum age to contest in the election of Legislative assembly:
Ans: 25 yrs
73. The chief minister is appointed by :
Ans: The governor
74. The governor of a state acts as:
Ans: The agent to the President
75.The Emoluments of the ministers in the state government are determined by:
Ans: Legislative assembly
76. There is no provision for the impeachment of :
Ans: The governor
77. The contingency fund of the state is operated by :
Ans: Governor
78. Which body can be abolished but not dissolved:
Ans: State legislative council
79. Which article of the constitution empowers the high court to issue writs of various kinds?
Ans: Article 226
80. The chief minister of state cannot take part in the election of president if he is:
Ans: A member of a legislative council of the state
81. Which article under the constitution authorizes the president to proclaim an emergency?
Ans: Article 352
82. When the emergency is declared the following fundamental rights is suspended,,
Ans: 19
83. How many types of emergencies are envisaged by the constitution?
Ans: 3
84. Proclamation of emergency issued approved by the parliament will be in force for the period of :
Ans: Six months
85. Brekdown of constitutional machinery in the state is popularly known as:
Ans: President’s rule
86. Which type of emergency declared the maximum number of times?”
Ans: Constitutional emergency
87. To declare National emergency, a decision must be taken by the
Ans: Cabinet
88. Financial emergency can be proclaimed under the article
Ans: 360
89. Presidnet made a proclamation of emergency on grounds of internal disturbances for the first time in:
Ans: 1975
90. Coalition government refers to:
Ans: a multi-party government
91. The chief justice of India is appointed by
Ans: The president
92. Judges of Supreme Court retires at the age of:
Ans: 65 yrs
93. Who can seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court:
Ans: President
94. Expand PIL
Ans: Public interest litigation
95. Which article provides that law lay down by Supreme Court is binding on all courts of india:
Ans: 141
96. Who interprets the Indian constitution?
Ans: The Supreme Court
97. Original jurisdiction of the supreme court of India relates to:
Ans: Disputes between states and union
98. In which case did Supreme Court restore the primacy of Fundamental rights over directive princiaples of state policy:
Ans: Minerva Mills case
99. Who has power to establish common high court for two or more states and union territories:
Ans: Parliament
100. Judicial review is exercised by the Supreme Court when a law violates
Ans: the constitution
101. The concept of secular state implies:
Ans: Neutrality of religion
102. The Indian constitution is recognized as
Ans: Federal in form and unitary in spirit
103. What is the ultimate source of political power (authority) in India?
Ans: People
104. By what procedure a new state is formed?
Ans: Constitutional amendment
105. Article 356 of the constitution of India Provides for
Ans: Proclamation of president rule in the state
106. How many subjects are there in the central, state and concurrent list?
Ans: 97,66 and 47
107. The concept of concurrent list is borrowed from the constitution of :
Ans: Australia
108. Reservation of appointment can be made under the article:
Ans: 16(4)
109. Which commission recommended 27% reservations?
Ans: mandal commission
110. Reservation of seats for SC’s and ST’s in the Loksabha was initially for:
Ans: 20 yrs
111. The mandal commission was appointed in
Ans: 1978
112. According to marriage act of 1954, the age is fixed at_______________ years for men and _______ for women….
Ans: 21 and 18.
113. Concept of ‘Creamy layer”, propounded by Supreme Court with regard to reservations, refers
Ans: Economically better-off people

Environmental Studies II BBM,II B.Com & IV BCA - 2012

Environmental Studies

II BBM,II B.Com & IV BCA

Answer All the Questions


1. An Environment Act was started in
a) 1976 b) 1986 c) 1996 d) 1998
2. The word Environment is derived from which language?
a) German b) Europe c) French d) Japanese
3. Which components constitute the plants animals, and the micro organisms?
a) Internal components b) Abiotic components c) Biotic components
4. Environmentalism refers to the movement to protect the quality and continuity of life by
Conservation of
a) Natural Resources b) Artificial resources c) Energy resources d) None
5. Consumption sector is also known as
a) Production sector b) Distribution sector c) House hold sector d) None
6. Environment studies does not have relation with
a) Chemistry b) Physics c) Biology d) Economics
7. The term environment derived from the French word which means to encircle or surround
a) Environ b)Oikos c)geo d) Aqua
8. The world summit on sustainable development at Johanseburg in the year
a) 2000 b) 1999 c) 2001 d)2002
9. The example of renewable resources are
a) Coal b) oil c) Iron d) Forest
10. Physical Enviroment is
a) abiotic component b) Biotic component c)Both Biotic and abiotic d) None of the above
11.The impact of which activities reach in to every cornor of the natural world exerting pressure on the available resources?
a) Human activity b) Agricultural c) Constructive
12. Earth Atmosphere contains ______________ % of nitrogen
a) 98% b) v12% c) 21% d) n 78%
13. Nirogen fixing bacteria exists in _______ of Plants
a) Leaf b) Roots c) Stem d) Flower
14. Sulphur occurs in soil and rocks in the form of
a) oxides of Zn & Fe b) Sulphates of Zn & Fe c)Nitrates of Zn & Fe d)Suphides of Zn & Fe
15. Which pollution affects plants, animals and human health etc.
a) Air Pollution b) Water pollution c) Environmental
16. The cause of green house effect is
a) afforestration b) Deforestration c)conservation d) flood
17. What is the permissible range of pH for drinking water as per the Indian standards?
a) 6 to 9 b) 6.5 to 7.5 c) 6 to 8.5 d) 6.5 to 8.5
18. Solar radiation consists of
a) UV b) Visible light c) Infrared d) All of these
19. Dense and diverse forests grows in
a) Tundra region b) Arid region c) Equatorial region d) None of the above
20. The examples of ground water is
a) Springs b) Lakes c) Ponds d) River
21.A plant community predominantly of trees and other vegetation usually with a close canopy, is called
a) Vegetational b) natural resources c) Environment d) Forest
22. The example of Exhaustible resources is
a) Hydro power b) Biomass c) solar power d) coal and natural gas
23. Antartica has _________ glaciers of the world
a) 30% b) 96% c) 70% d) 60%
24. Excess floride in drinking water is likely to cause
a) Blue babies b) flurosis c) Arsenic d) intestinal irritation
25. Forest rich area in Karnataka is found in
a) Western ghats b) Bandipur c) Nagarhole d) Mangalore
26. The examples of renewable resources are
a) Fossile fuel b) Metals c) Minerals d) Plants
27.During the photosynthesis, trees produce
a) Oxygen b) Co2 c) Nitrogen d) Carbon Monoxide
28. What is the maximum allowable concentration of fluorides in drinking water?
a) 1.0 ml gram per liter b) 1.25 ml gram per liter
c) 1.50 ml gram per liter d) 1.75 ml gram per liter
29. The depletion of trees causing accumulation of_____
a) NO2 b) SO2 c) CO2 d) O2
30. __________are referred to as Earth’s Lungs
a) Forests b) Carbon cycles c) Water resources d) Mines
31. Cholera & typhoid are caused by
a) Worms b) Virus c) Bacteria d) Fungus
32. Hepatitis is caused by
a)Protozoo b) Virus c) Bacteria d) Fungus
33. Mineral resources are
a) Renewable b) Available in Plenty c)Non renewable d) Equally distributed
34. In india forest conservation act was introduced in
a) 1965 b) 1970 c)1975 d) 1980
35. Global forest cover is a key indicator of the health of the
a)Planet b) Forest c)Human being d) None of these
36. The national target to achieve 33% of forest cover is expected by
a) 2012 b) 2015 c) 2014 d) 2016
37. The process of taking out material from earth crust is
a) Quarrying b) Mining c) Acquifer b) Purifying
38. Food refers to anything eaten by man to satisfy his appetite and to supply energy to
a) Bones b) Human body c) brain d) Mussels
39. The energy that is used for turning the wheels of machines and engines is
a) Power resources b) Energy resources c) natural resources d) Forest resources
40. Which erosion prevents by forests
a) Water erosion b) soil erosion c) sound erosion d) All together
41. The process of clearing forest cover by cutting down burning and damaging plantation is called
a) Carbon storage b) Oxygen storage c) Ethanal storage d) None of these
42. Africa losing forest at the rate of
a) 4% b) 6% c) 3% d) 8%
43. The living resources are called
a) abiotic resources b) Biotic resources c) Exhaustible resources d) In exhaustible resources
44. Example of Exhaustible resources is
a) Coal b) solar energy c) atomic energy d) wind Power
45. While manufacturing the Bauxite _______ are produced
a) Fluorine b) Chlorine c) Oxygen d) Oxide
46._______% of water is preset as fresh water to satisfy human needs
a) 1.6% b) 3.6% c) 2% d) 2.6%
47. Which is laid off from the rivers to carry water to agricultural fields?
a) Pyres b) Pyses c) Pyrers d) pisers
48. Uranium mine is located in
a) Jaduguda b) Punjab c) Jharkand d) assam
49. Salinity is the presence of __________ in soils or water
a) Soluble states b) insoluble salts c) acid d) water
50. Solar cells are also referred to as
a) Photos cell b) Photoc cell c) Phototaic cells d) Photovaltaic cells
51. The first hydro power generating unit was commissioned in Darjeeling in
a) 1888 b) 1890 c) 1895 d) 1897
52. _______ wastes are decomposed to generate biogas
a) Fuel b) Disposal c) Organic d) Inorganic
53. Desertification occurs mainly in semi arid ares where average rainfall is less than
a) 200 mm b) 400 mm c) 500 mm d) 600 mm
54. The wild life protection act of 1972, was enunciated and special programmes to protect _____ species
a) Endangered b) endangered wild life c) exhausted d) animal life
55. Food web consist of
a) a portion of food web b) an organisms position in a food chain c) Interlocking food chain d) A set of similar consumers
56. Uranium & thorium are non ferrous minerals used for producing _________ energy
a) Atomic b) power c) electrical d) Nuclear
57. The term ecosystem was coined by Arthur Tansley in
a) 1920 b) 1925 c) 1930 d) 1935
58. The process of food synthesis by producers is called
a) Self-narration b) Autotrophic c) Autobiotic
59. The living components of the eco system, which depends on producers for their nutrition are called
a) Customers b) consumptionist c) consumers
60. MAB is
a) Man and Biosphere b) Man and Biosphere programme c) Man and Biosphere policy
d) Man and Biomass
61. Hot spots refers to
a) Land slide sites b) Centres of volcanic activity c) Earth quake zones d) centres of weak spots under crustal plates
62. Which pyramid is always upright
a) Energy b) Biomass c) Numbers d) Food chain
63. Predator food chain is also called as
a) Grace food chain b) granse food chain c) Grazing food chain
64. The Ecosystem found in watery environment is
a) Acquatic b) desert c) Grass land d) estuaries
65.The animal that is not found in savanna is
a) Camel b) antelopes c) leopards d) Mice
66. Decomposers includes
a) Micro organisms b) hetetrophic organisms c) Fusarium organisms
67. Plant eating animals are called
a) Herbivores b) carnivores c) omnivores d) consumers
68. Temperate grassland are called as
a) Savanna b) Steppes c) ecosystem d) None
69. Marine ecosystem does not include
a) Ocean b) coralreefs c) estuaries d) lakes
70. The major atmospheric gas layer in stratosphere is
a) Hydrogen b) Co2 c) Ozone d) Helium
71. India is self sufficient in
a) Gold b) coal c) Lead d) Zink
72. The term biological diversity coined by
a) Thames lare b) Thomas Leyers
c) Thumas Laure d) Thomas Lovejoy
73. Biodiversity includes
a) all living things b) only non-living things c) Only organisms d) Micro organisms
74. India has _________ species of amphibians which are endemic species
a) 89 b) 98 c) 79 d) 67
75. The expansion of EBA’s is
a) Endemic Boarders area’s b) Endemic Board area
c) Endemic Bird ares’s d) Endemic bears area
76. The total forest cover of the country is % of the geographic area of the country
a) 19.20 b) 18.20 c) 17.27 d) 19.27
77. Conservation strategies are urgently needed involving a mix of which strategies?
a) in situ and ex situ b) instate and ex sata
c) in sito and exsito d) in site and siti
78. CES stands for
a) Control for Ecological services b) center for economic science
c) Center for ecological sciences d) None
79. How many millions of people were die each year from causes of air pollution?
a) 2.2 b) 2.6 c) 4.2 d) 4.6
80. Expansion of VOC is
a) Valtole organ carbonic b) volatoil organic carbon
c) Volatile organic carbon d) velatele Organ carbon
81. Remote sensing is useful in
a) Biodiversity b) Global warming c) Cyclones d) ecosystem
82. Ship transporting oil during which oil leakage is common and accidents results in
a) oil slobs b) oil slicks c) Oil lubricants
83. Noise pollution limits at residential area
a) 45 dB b) 80 dB c) 55 dB d) 90 dB
84. Pesticides causes
a) Eye irritation b) skin irritation c) Respiratory ailments d) all of the above
85. The first Indian city to adopt CNG (compressed natural gas) for public transport is
a) Delhi b) Ahmedabad c) Kolkata d) Chennai
86. The community water supply and sanitation project was initiated in
a) 1984 b) 1986 c) 1990 d) 1992
87. Environmental ethics became a subject of sustained academic philosophic reflection in
a) 1960 b) 1970 c) 1980 d) 1990
88. The emissions from chemicals has depleted the ozone layer by
a) 10% b) 12% c) 14% d) 16%
89. The term acid rain was first used by Robert angus in
a) 1860 b) 1865 c) 1870 d) 1872
90. Globally the warmest year was in
a) 1990 b) 1994 c) 1998 d) 1999
91. Rain water with pH _______ is called acid rain
a) Lower than 5.7 b) Higher than 5.7
c) Equal to 7 d) more than 7.5
92. Ozone is _________ around equator
a) Dense b) Thinnest c) Thin d) Equal
93. Environment protection Act was started in
a) 1988 b) 1986 c) 1984 d) 1982
94. The expansion of PGR is
a) Population growth rate b) Pollution growth rate
c) Prevention growth rate d) Product growth rate
95. In the year 2050, Indian population will reach around
a) 1.53 billion b) 1.00 billion c) 1.32 billion d) 1.35 billion
96. Which virus was identified in 1983?
a) AIDS virus b) HIV virus c) HIT virus d) RNA virus
97. The CFC which enters stratosphere lasts for about
a) 65-385 yrs b) 6-38 yrs c) 600-3000 yrs d) 60.38 months
98. National Family welfare programme was launched in India in the year
a) 1951 b) 1952 c) 1953 d) 1954
99. Aids is a
a) Virus b) Vaccine c) disease d) syringe
100. When was human environment adopted at Stockholm?
a) On 16 July 1972 b) On 16 Nov 1972
c) On 16 Jan 1972 d) On 16 June 1972